Optimal Bet Sizing via the Kelly Criterion

Optimization · Medium · Free problem

You have a bankroll $W_t$ and repeatedly face a simple even-money bet: with probability $p = 0.53$ you win your stake, and with probability $q = 1 - p = 0.47$ you lose it. Each round, you wager a fixed fraction $f \in (0, 1)$ of your current bankroll and reinvest the proceeds. After one round your wealth is:

$W_{t+1} = \begin{cases} W_t(1 + f) & \text{with probability } p \\ W_t(1 - f) & \text{with probability } q \end{cases}$

  1. Derive the fraction $f$ that maximizes the expected log-growth rate $g(f) = E[\log W_{t+1} - \log W_t]$.
  1. Express the optimal growth rate $g(f^{*})$ in closed form.
  1. What happens to your bankroll in the long run if you bet $f = 0.50$ instead of the optimal fraction?

Hints

  1. The right objective is not expected wealth but expected *log*-wealth. Why does the logarithm matter when you are reinvesting?
  2. Write the one-round log-growth as $p \log(1+f) + q \log(1-f)$ and notice this is a concave function of $f$. Take the derivative and set it to zero.
  3. After solving $p/(1+f) = q/(1-f)$, use $p + q = 1$ to simplify. The closed-form growth rate can be written elegantly using binary entropy: $g(f^{*}) = \log 2 - H(p)$.

Worked Solution

How to Think About It: This is the Kelly Criterion -- the single most important result in bankroll management. The key tension: bet too small and you leave edge on the table; bet too large and the geometric drag from losses destroys you. Arithmetic expectation says "bet it all" (your edge is positive), but compounding says otherwise. The right objective is not maximizing expected wealth (which is linear in $f$) but maximizing expected *log*-wealth (which captures the multiplicative nature of reinvestment). A senior trader would frame it this way: "What fraction makes my median outcome grow fastest?"

Quick Estimate: With $p = 0.53$ on an even-money bet, Kelly says $f^{*} = 2p - 1 = 0.06$. That feels small, but the edge ($p - q = 0.06$) is small. The optimal growth rate should be on the order of $f^{*2}/4 \approx 0.0009$ per round -- tiny but positive. Betting $f = 0.50$ is massively over-betting: the log-growth would be $0.53 \log 1.5 + 0.47 \log 0.5 \approx 0.53(0.405) + 0.47(-0.693) = 0.215 - 0.326 = -0.111$. That is a *negative* growth rate -- you go broke with certainty despite having a positive edge. This is the whole point of Kelly.

Approach: Maximize the expected log-growth rate, which is a concave function of $f$, by taking the first derivative and setting it to zero.

Formal Solution:

The one-round log-growth rate is:

$g(f) = E[\log W_{t+1} - \log W_t] = p \log(1 + f) + q \log(1 - f)$

Differentiate with respect to $f$:

$g'(f) = \frac{p}{1 + f} - \frac{q}{1 - f}$

Set $g'(f) = 0$:

$\frac{p}{1 + f} = \frac{q}{1 - f}$

$p(1 - f) = q(1 + f)$

$p - pf = q + qf$

$p - q = f(p + q) = f$

Since $p + q = 1$, we get:

$f^{*} = p - q = 2p - 1$

With $p = 0.53$: $f^{*} = 0.06$, i.e., bet 6% of your bankroll each round.

To confirm this is a maximum, check the second derivative:

$g''(f) = -\frac{p}{(1+f)^2} - \frac{q}{(1-f)^2} < 0$

This is always negative, so $g(f)$ is strictly concave and $f^{*}$ is indeed a global maximum.

The optimal growth rate is:

$g(f^{*}) = p \log(1 + (p - q)) + q \log(1 - (p - q))$

$= p \log(2p) + q \log(2q)$

$= p \log p + q \log q + \log 2$

$= \log 2 - H(p)$

where $H(p) = -p \log p - q \log q$ is the binary entropy of the bet. In natural logs with $p = 0.53$:

$g(f^{*}) = \ln 2 - (-0.53 \ln 0.53 - 0.47 \ln 0.47)$

$= 0.6931 - (0.53 \times 0.6349 + 0.47 \times 0.7550)$

$= 0.6931 - (0.3365 + 0.3549) = 0.6931 - 0.6914 = 0.0018$

So you grow at about 0.18% per round at the optimum.

For Part 3, at $f = 0.50$:

$g(0.50) = 0.53 \ln 1.5 + 0.47 \ln 0.5 = 0.53(0.4055) + 0.47(-0.6931) = 0.2149 - 0.3258 = -0.1109$

Negative growth rate: your bankroll decays geometrically. Despite a positive expected return per round, you are almost certain to go broke in the long run because the geometric mean of $(1.5)^{0.53} \times (0.5)^{0.47}$ is less than 1.

Answer: The optimal Kelly fraction is $f^{*} = p - q = 2p - 1 = 0.06$. The optimal growth rate is $g(f^{*}) = \log 2 - H(p)$, which equals approximately $0.0018$ per round. Over-betting at $f = 0.50$ produces a negative growth rate of about $-0.11$ per round, guaranteeing eventual ruin.

Intuition

The Kelly Criterion captures a fundamental tension in compounding: arithmetic expectation and geometric growth pull in opposite directions. If you bet your entire bankroll on a 53/47 coin, your expected wealth after one flip is

.06 \times$ your starting amount -- looks great. But the median outcome over many flips converges to the geometric mean, which at full Kelly-overbet ($f = 1$) is zero. The Kelly fraction $f^{*} = p - q$ is the unique point where the geometric growth rate is maximized. It says: bet in proportion to your edge, no more.

This shows up everywhere in quant finance. Position sizing, leverage decisions, risk allocation across strategies -- they are all Kelly problems in disguise. The formula $g(f^{*}) = \log 2 - H(p)$ reveals a beautiful information-theoretic connection: your maximum growth rate equals the amount of "surprise" you can extract from the bet beyond fair-coin randomness. When $p = 0.5$ (no edge), entropy is maximized and growth is zero. As your edge grows, entropy drops and growth increases. The practical lesson every trader learns (sometimes the hard way): over-betting a small edge is far more dangerous than under-betting it. Half-Kelly ($f^{*}/2$) gives you 75% of the growth rate with far less variance -- which is why most real-world practitioners use a fraction of the full Kelly bet.

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