Delta of a Digital Call Option
A digital (binary) call option pays $\$1$ if $S_T > K$ and $\$0$ otherwise. Under standard Black-Scholes assumptions (constant volatility $\sigma$, risk-free rate $r$, log-normal stock price), the price of this option is: $$V = e^{-rT} N(d_2)$$
where $d_2 = \dfrac{\ln(S/K) + (r - \sigma^2/2)T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}$.
- Derive the delta $\Delta = \partial V / \partial S$ of this digital call.
- What happens to the delta as $T \to 0$ when the option is at-the-money ($S \approx K$)? What does this imply for hedging?
Hints
- The digital call price is $e^{-rT} N(d_2)$. To find delta, you just need to differentiate $N(d_2)$ with respect to $S$.
- Recall that $\frac{d}{dx} N(x) = \phi(x)$, and compute $\partial d_2 / \partial S = 1/(S \sigma \sqrt{T})$.
- For the limiting behavior, set $S = K$ so $d_2 \to 0$, then examine what happens to $\phi(0)/(S \sigma \sqrt{T})$ as $T \to 0$.
Worked Solution
How to Think About It: A digital call is a discounted bet on the event $\{S_T > K\}$, so its price is $e^{-rT}$ times the risk-neutral probability of that event, $N(d_2)$. Delta asks: how fast does that probability move when the stock moves? The heuristic is a chain-rule + dimensional check. The only place $S$ enters is through $d_2$, and $d_2$ shifts by $\partial d_2/\partial S = 1/(S\sigma\sqrt{T})$ per dollar. The probability responds to that shift at the rate of the normal *density* $\phi(d_2)$. So $\Delta = e^{-rT}\phi(d_2)\cdot\tfrac{1}{S\sigma\sqrt{T}}$ almost writes itself. The trap is to reach for the vanilla-call delta $N(d_1)$ — that is the *derivative of a payoff that grows linearly past $K$*, not of an indicator. A digital's payoff is flat except for a jump, so its sensitivity lives entirely in the density at the boundary.
Quick Estimate: The interview payoff here is the *scaling law*, and you can get it dimensionally without a single BSM table lookup. At the money $d_2\approx 0$, so $\phi(d_2)\approx\phi(0)=1/\sqrt{2\pi}\approx 0.4$. Everything else in $\Delta=\tfrac{e^{-rT}\phi(d_2)}{S\sigma\sqrt{T}}$ is order-1 except the lone $\sqrt{T}$ in the denominator, so $\Delta$ scales like $1/\sqrt{T}$. Put numbers on it: take $S=K=100$, $\sigma=0.2$, $r=0$. At $T=1$: $\Delta\approx \tfrac{0.4}{100\cdot 0.2\cdot 1}=\tfrac{0.4}{20}=0.02$. Now shrink the horizon to $T=0.01$ (about 2–3 trading days): $\sqrt{T}$ drops from $1$ to $0.1$, a factor of $10$, so $\Delta\approx 0.02\times 10 = 0.2$. Shrink again to $T=10^{-4}$: another factor of $10$, $\Delta\approx 2$. The number has no ceiling — halving the time to expiry multiplies delta by $\sqrt2$ forever. That runaway *is* the answer to part 2: the hedge ratio diverges.
Approach: Chain rule through $d_2$; then read off the $T\to 0$ behaviour from the $1/\sqrt{T}$ factor with $\phi(d_2)\to\phi(0)$.
Formal Solution:
(a) Delta. With $V=e^{-rT}N(d_2)$ and $d_2=\dfrac{\ln(S/K)+(r-\sigma^2/2)T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}$, only $\ln S$ carries the $S$-dependence, so $$\frac{\partial d_2}{\partial S}=\frac{1}{S\sigma\sqrt{T}}.$$ By the chain rule, using $N'(x)=\phi(x)$, $$\boxed{\;\Delta=\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}=e^{-rT}\phi(d_2)\,\frac{\partial d_2}{\partial S}=\frac{e^{-rT}\,\phi(d_2)}{S\sigma\sqrt{T}}\;}$$ Sanity: $\Delta>0$ always (higher $S$ raises the ITM probability). Deep ITM ($d_2\to+\infty$) or deep OTM ($d_2\to-\infty$) both send $\phi(d_2)\to 0$, so $\Delta\to 0$ in the tails; the sensitivity peaks near ATM.
(b) The limit $T\to 0$ at the money. Set $S=K$, so $\ln(S/K)=0$ and $d_2=\dfrac{(r-\sigma^2/2)\sqrt{T}}{\sigma}\to 0$; hence $\phi(d_2)\to\phi(0)=\tfrac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}$ and $e^{-rT}\to 1$. The denominator $S\sigma\sqrt{T}\to 0$, so $$\Delta\sim\frac{1}{S\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}\cdot\frac{1}{\sqrt{T}}\;\longrightarrow\;+\infty.$$ Delta blows up without bound — it concentrates into a Dirac spike at $S=K$ as the payoff sharpens into a step. A tiny stock move flips the whole \$1 payoff, so no finite position in the underlying can hedge it; the required share count explodes.
Practical note: desks never hedge a naked digital near expiry with stock. They replicate it with a tight call spread — long $C(K)$, short $C(K+\epsilon)$, scaled by $1/\epsilon$ — whose delta stays bounded. Tighter $\epsilon$ means better replication but more gamma to carry.
Answer: $\Delta=\dfrac{e^{-rT}\,\phi(d_2)}{S\sigma\sqrt{T}}$. At the money it grows like $1/\sqrt{T}$ and diverges as $T\to 0$, so the underlying alone essentially cannot hedge the digital right near expiry.
Intuition
The digital call's delta being unbounded near expiry is one of the most practically important results in options pricing. It illustrates a general principle: discontinuous payoffs create infinite sensitivities, which makes them unhedgeable in the Black-Scholes framework. The model assumes you can continuously rebalance, but when delta is changing infinitely fast, no finite rebalancing frequency can keep up. This is why the market prices digital options with an implied vol skew that differs from vanilla options -- the price embeds the cost of the hedging difficulty. In real trading, you always think of a digital as a limiting case of a call spread, which keeps the greeks finite and manageable.