Two-Sided Market Making With Overround

Finance · Hard · Free problem

You are making a two-sided market on a binary event. The true probability that the event occurs is $p$. You quote decimal odds $O_{\text{yes}}$ and $O_{\text{no}}$ (payout includes stake, so a customer who bets $\$1$ on "yes" receives $O_{\text{yes}}$ if the event occurs and loses the dollar otherwise).

A customer arrives with a private belief $p_c$ about the event probability, drawn uniformly on $[0, 1]$. The customer computes their expected value on each side:

  • Bet "yes": $\text{EV} = p_c \cdot O_{\text{yes}} - 1$
  • Bet "no": $\text{EV} = (1 - p_c) \cdot O_{\text{no}} - 1$

If exactly one side has positive expected value, the customer takes that side. If both sides have positive expected value, the customer takes the side with higher EV. If neither side has positive EV, the customer does not trade. The customer always stakes $\$1$.

  1. Derive your expected profit per arriving customer as a function of $(O_{\text{yes}}, O_{\text{no}})$ and $p$.
  1. Find the pair of odds $(O_{\text{yes}}^{*}, O_{\text{no}}^{*})$ that maximizes your expected profit, and verify that the maximum is strictly positive for all $p \in (0,1)$.

Hints

  1. Start by figuring out which customers trade. A customer with belief $p_c$ bets "yes" only when $p_c \cdot O_{\text{yes}} > 1$. What is the cutoff belief for each side?
  2. Since $p_c$ is uniform, the fraction of customers betting each side is determined by the breakeven beliefs $1/O_{\text{yes}}$ and $1 - 1/O_{\text{no}}$. Write the expected profit as a sum over each region.
  3. After simplifying, the profit function is $3 - p O_{\text{yes}} - (1-p) O_{\text{no}} - 1/O_{\text{yes}} - 1/O_{\text{no}}$. This is separable in the two odds -- optimize each independently using first-order conditions.

Worked Solution

How to Think About It: You are a market maker quoting odds on a yes/no event. Your edge comes from the overround -- the implied probabilities you quote sum to more than 1, so on average you collect more than you pay out. But you are not trading against a single counterparty; customers arrive with random beliefs and only trade when they think they have an edge. The question is: how does this adverse selection eat into your vig?

The key observation is that customers with extreme beliefs (very high $p_c$ or very low $p_c$) are the ones who trade. Customers in the middle see no edge on either side and walk away. Your profit depends on the fraction of customers who trade and how much you make (or lose) on each trade on average.

Quick Estimate: Take $p = 0.5$ and symmetric odds $O_{\text{yes}} = O_{\text{no}} = 1.8$ (implied overround $2/1.8 \approx 1.11$). The breakeven belief for "yes" is $p_c > 1/1.8 \approx 0.556$, and for "no" is $p_c < 1 - 1/1.8 \approx 0.444$. About $44.4\%$ of customers bet each side, and $11.1\%$ walk away. On each trade, your expected profit is $1 - 0.5 \times 1.8 = 0.10$. Total: $2 \times 0.444 \times 0.10 \approx 0.089$ per customer. That is a healthy vig.

Approach: Define the breakeven beliefs, split customers into regions, and compute the expected profit in each region. Then optimize over $(O_{\text{yes}}, O_{\text{no}})$.

Formal Solution:

Define the breakeven beliefs:

$$a = \frac{1}{O_{\text{yes}}}, \qquad b = 1 - \frac{1}{O_{\text{no}}}$$

A customer bets "yes" when $p_c > a$ (EV of yes is positive) and bets "no" when $p_c < b$ (EV of no is positive). For a viable market with overround, we need $O_{\text{yes}} > 1$, $O_{\text{no}} > 1$, and $1/O_{\text{yes}} + 1/O_{\text{no}} > 1$, which gives $a > b$. In this regime, customers with $p_c \in [b, a]$ see no positive EV on either side and do not trade.

Since $p_c \sim \text{Uniform}[0,1]$:

  • Customer bets "no" (probability $b$): market maker's expected profit per trade is $1 - (1-p) O_{\text{no}}$.
  • Customer bets "yes" (probability $1 - a$): market maker's expected profit per trade is $1 - p \, O_{\text{yes}}$.
  • Customer walks away (probability $a - b$): profit is $0$.

Total expected profit:

$$E[\pi] = b \bigl(1 - (1-p)\, O_{\text{no}}\bigr) + (1 - a)\bigl(1 - p\, O_{\text{yes}}\bigr)$$

Substituting $a = 1/O_{\text{yes}}$ and $b = 1 - 1/O_{\text{no}}$:

$$E[\pi] = \left(1 - \frac{1}{O_{\text{no}}}\right)\!\left(1 - (1-p)\, O_{\text{no}}\right) + \left(1 - \frac{1}{O_{\text{yes}}}\right)\!\left(1 - p\, O_{\text{yes}}\right)$$

Expanding and simplifying:

$$E[\pi] = 3 - p\, O_{\text{yes}} - (1-p)\, O_{\text{no}} - \frac{1}{O_{\text{yes}}} - \frac{1}{O_{\text{no}}}$$

This is the answer to part 1.

Optimization (Part 2): To maximize over $(O_{\text{yes}}, O_{\text{no}})$, take partial derivatives:

$$\frac{\partial E[\pi]}{\partial O_{\text{yes}}} = -p + \frac{1}{O_{\text{yes}}^2} = 0 \quad \Longrightarrow \quad O_{\text{yes}}^{*} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{p}}$$

$$\frac{\partial E[\pi]}{\partial O_{\text{no}}} = -(1-p) + \frac{1}{O_{\text{no}}^2} = 0 \quad \Longrightarrow \quad O_{\text{no}}^{*} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-p}}$$

The second derivatives are $-2/O^3 < 0$, confirming this is a maximum. Substituting back:

$$E[\pi]^{*} = 3 - \frac{p}{\sqrt{p}} - \frac{1-p}{\sqrt{1-p}} - \sqrt{p} - \sqrt{1-p} = 3 - 2\sqrt{p} - 2\sqrt{1-p}$$

To verify this is strictly positive for all $p \in (0,1)$: by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality (or direct calculus), $\sqrt{p} + \sqrt{1-p} \leq \sqrt{2}$, with equality at $p = 1/2$. Therefore:

$$E[\pi]^{*} \geq 3 - 2\sqrt{2} \approx 3 - 2.828 = 0.172 > 0$$

The minimum profit occurs at $p = 1/2$ with symmetric optimal odds $O_{\text{yes}}^{*} = O_{\text{no}}^{*} = \sqrt{2} \approx 1.414$ (implied overround $2\sqrt{2}/2 \cdot 100\% \approx 141\%$).

Sanity Check: The optimal overround is $1/O_{\text{yes}}^{*} + 1/O_{\text{no}}^{*} = \sqrt{p} + \sqrt{1-p}$. This exceeds 1 for all $p \in (0,1)$ (since each term is positive and their sum at $p = 0$ or $p = 1$ equals 1, and it is concave with interior maximum $\sqrt{2} > 1$). The implied probabilities are $\sqrt{p}$ and $\sqrt{1-p}$, which compress probabilities toward $1/2$ -- exactly the "shading" a market maker applies to protect against adverse selection.

Answer:

Expected profit per customer:

$$E[\pi] = 3 - p\, O_{\text{yes}} - (1-p)\, O_{\text{no}} - \frac{1}{O_{\text{yes}}} - \frac{1}{O_{\text{no}}}$$

Optimal odds: $O_{\text{yes}}^{*} = 1/\sqrt{p}$, $O_{\text{no}}^{*} = 1/\sqrt{1-p}$. Maximum profit: $3 - 2\sqrt{p} - 2\sqrt{1-p} > 0$ for all $p \in (0,1)$.

Intuition

This problem captures the fundamental tension in market making: you want to quote wide spreads to protect against adverse selection, but wider spreads mean fewer customers trade with you. The overround (the amount by which your implied probabilities exceed 1) acts as your vig, but only customers with extreme beliefs -- the ones most likely to be right -- actually trade against you. Your profit is the overround minus the adverse selection cost.

The optimal odds $O^{*} = 1/\sqrt{p}$ have a beautiful interpretation: you set implied probabilities equal to $\sqrt{p}$ and $\sqrt{1-p}$ rather than $p$ and $1-p$. This "square-root compression" shades all probabilities toward $1/2$, which is exactly the qualitative adjustment a market maker makes in practice -- widen the market symmetrically to protect against informed flow. The fact that the optimal profit $3 - 2\sqrt{p} - 2\sqrt{1-p}$ is always positive shows that a monopolist market maker can always find profitable odds, no matter how uncertain the event. This result breaks down if customers are informed (beliefs correlated with the true $p$) or if there is competition forcing tighter spreads.

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